Just curious: how come the deceased is typically referred to as the "victim" when there's no information available to justify it's usage yet? Why the presumptions, repeatedly, that the possible recipients of a speedy-trial-of-their-peers and justice-in-action are always "victimized?" Perhaps because the $tate didn't get the opportunity to ju$tify $o many para$ites on their payroll in the di$pen$ation of their ver$ion of "ju$tice?" Hmm....